I've heard, and read references to, the fact that you shouldn't specify a naked domain when setting up a Reverse DNS - that you need to specify a subdomain. Is this true?
For example:
Supposedly Bad: exampledomain.com
Good: www.exampledomain.com
What exactly goes wrong when you point to a naked domain?
The reason why I'm asking is because using naked domains for website addresses is more common than it was in the past, and IPv6 makes it so every website can have it's own IP. So I would think it would make sense for the canonical URL to be the same as the reverse DNS for IPv6.